INTRODUCTION
The week spanning 23rd to 28th January 2026 witnessed significant developments across Assam, national, and international spheres. Assam commemorated the 56th Statehood Day of Himachal Pradesh while focusing on its own cultural heritage with the Sikkim Sundari plant drawing attention. Nationally, Republic Day 2026 was celebrated with the theme "150 Years of Vande Mataram," Padma Awards 2026 were announced, and India-EU FTA negotiations concluded. Key scientific advancements included DRDO's LR-AShM hypersonic missile showcase and ISRO's continued RLV developments. This comprehensive coverage is crucial for APSC, UPSC, SSC, Banking, and Assam TET examinations, providing verified, exam-oriented current affairs with special emphasis on Assam-specific developments and their national significance.
SECTION 1: ASSAM STATE NEWS
1. Sikkim Sundari Plant Draws Attention in Assam
Date of Occurrence: 27 January 2026
Location: North Sikkim (Relevant to Assam's biodiversity consciousness)
Key Facts & Figures: Rheum nobile, altitude 4,000–4,800 metres, Polygonaceae family, monocarpic, 7–30 years life cycle
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Not applicable
Sikkim Sundari (Rheum nobile), locally known as padamchal, is a giant herbaceous perennial plant native to the high-altitude alpine zones of the Eastern Himalayas, found at elevations between 4,000 and 4,800 metres. The plant, belonging to the Polygonaceae family, is distributed across North Sikkim, Nepal, Bhutan, Tibet, and Myanmar, growing on open alpine slopes, rock ledges, glacial valleys, and tundra-like environments. Its most distinctive feature is the tall, translucent bracts that form a natural glasshouse, trapping heat and protecting flowers from freezing winds and intense UV radiation, giving it a luminous, tower-like appearance. The plant is monocarpic, spending 7–30 years as a low rosette storing energy before a single dramatic bloom into a tall pagoda-like spike, after which it sets seed and dies. The stems are locally consumed for their acidic flavour (chuka), and it has traditional medicinal applications in Himalayan and Tibetan medicine systems.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Important for APSC and Assam TET exams as it highlights the biodiversity of the Eastern Himalayan region, which shares ecological characteristics with Assam's highland areas. Questions on endemic species, medicinal plants, and Himalayan ecology are common in state and central exams.
Factual Sentences:
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Rheum nobile is commonly known as Sikkim Sundari or padamchal in local dialects.
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The plant belongs to the Polygonaceae family, which also includes buckwheat and rhubarb.
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Its translucent bracts function as a natural greenhouse, maintaining internal temperatures.
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The species is found in North Sikkim along trekking routes near alpine passes and glacial valleys.
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It is classified as a monocarpic plant, flowering only once in its lifetime before death.
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The flowering stalk can reach heights of 1.5 to 2 metres during the reproductive phase.
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Traditional Himalayan medicine uses the root and stem for treating various ailments.
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The plant's conservation status is vulnerable due to climate change and habitat disturbance.
2. Tamil Nadu's Opposition to Three-Language Formula and Assam's Language Policy
Date of Occurrence: 27 January 2026
Location: Tamil Nadu (Relevance to Assam's linguistic framework)
Key Facts & Figures: NEP 2020, Three-Language Formula, Two-Language Policy (Tamil-English), 1968 policy by C.N. Annadurai
Government Body / Organisation Involved: University Grants Commission (UGC), Government of Tamil Nadu
Tamil Nadu formally opposed the University Grants Commission's circular mandating a third language in higher educational institutions, characterising it as an attempt to impose Hindi and reaffirming the State's commitment to its historic two-language policy. The State government categorically rejected the three-language formula prescribed in the National Education Policy 2020, viewing the UGC circular as an infringement on State policy autonomy. The three-language formula under NEP 2020 requires students to learn three languages, with at least two being native Indian languages including a regional language, while the third language can be English or another modern Indian or foreign language. Tamil Nadu has adhered to the two-language formula of Tamil and English since 1968, originally formulated by former Chief Minister C.N. Annadurai. The State Assembly had unanimously urged the Union government in 2022 not to implement recommendations of the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language, which included proposals to make Hindi the medium of instruction in central institutions. Education falls under the Concurrent List of the Constitution, making such policy disputes a recurring feature of Centre-State relations.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Critical for APSC and UPSC exams as it illustrates Centre-State dynamics, federalism, and language policy conflicts. Assam, with its own linguistic diversity and the Official Language Act, 1960, presents parallels in terms of language policy implementation and regional aspirations.
Factual Sentences:
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Tamil Nadu's two-language policy comprises Tamil and English as the only compulsory languages.
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The three-language formula was first recommended by the Kothari Commission (1964-66).
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National Education Policy 2020 promotes multilingualism and mandates three-language learning.
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Article 343 of the Constitution designates Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union.
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The Official Languages Act, 1963, provides for the continued use of English for official purposes.
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Education is listed in Entry 25 of the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule.
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Tamil Nadu has historically resisted Hindi imposition since the anti-Hindi agitations of 1937-40 and 1965.
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The State's current policy derives from the formula adopted during C.N. Annadurai's Chief Ministership.
3. Jamma Bane Lands Amendment in Kodagu and Relevance to Assam's Land Tenure Systems
Date of Occurrence: 27 January 2026
Location: Karnataka (Relevance to Assam's land systems)
Key Facts & Figures: Karnataka Land Revenue (2nd Amendment) Act, 2025, Jamma Bane tenure, 1600-1800 CE
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Government of Karnataka
Karnataka enacted the Karnataka Land Revenue (2nd Amendment) Act, 2025, to modernise the century-old land record system for the unique Jamma Bane lands in Kodagu (Coorg). Jamma Bane is a hereditary land tenure system prevalent in Kodagu district, where lands were originally granted by the erstwhile kings of Coorg and the British between 1600 and 1800 CE to local communities, primarily the Kodavas, in return for military service. These holdings comprise both wetlands used for paddy cultivation and forested highlands, which have largely been converted into the region's famous coffee estates. The traditional record-keeping system registered ownership in the name of the original grantee (pattedar), and despite generational succession, new owners' names were only added alongside the pattedar's name rather than as replacements. This system created serious legal and economic problems, including difficulties in sale, purchase, inheritance, mutation, and access to bank loans due to lack of clear title. The amendment seeks to align these records with the Karnataka Land Revenue Act, 1964, ensuring accurate documentation of current holders, occupants, and owners.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Highly relevant for APSC exams as Assam has multiple traditional land tenure systems including the Satra land system, Brahmaputra Valley zamindari, and the distinctive hill district land holding patterns under the Sixth Schedule. Comparative analysis of land reforms across states is frequently tested.
Factual Sentences:
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Jamma Bane lands originated from grants made by Kodagu kings and later the British administration.
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The Kodavas, the primary community holding Jamma Bane lands, are classified as a martial race.
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Coffee plantations on former Jamma Bane highlands produce both Robusta and Arabica varieties.
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The amendment resolves inheritance disputes by enabling clear title documentation for current holders.
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Similar tenure systems exist in other parts of India, including the Inam lands of South India.
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The Karnataka Land Revenue Act, 1964, is the principal legislation governing land records in the state.
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Mutation refers to the recording of transfer of title of immovable property.
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Clear land titles are essential prerequisites for institutional credit and property transactions.
4. INSV Kaundinya's Oman Voyage and Assam's Maritime Heritage Link
Date of Occurrence: 24 January 2026
Location: Porbandar to Muscat, Oman
Key Facts & Figures: India's first stitched ship, Tankai method, 2000-year-old technique, Yuktikalpataru (9th century CE)
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Indian Navy, Eutelsat (OneWeb satellite constellation)
INSV Kaundinya reached Muscat's Port Sultan Qaboos after completing its maiden voyage from Porbandar, Gujarat, highlighting the shared maritime heritage of India and Oman. The vessel is India's first 'stitched ship' built using the ancient stitched shipbuilding technique known as the Tankai method, reviving a 2000-year-old indigenous technology that had fallen into disuse. The Tankai method employs stitched planks bound with coir ropes instead of metal fasteners such as iron nails, making ships flexible and rust-proof, while using indigenous materials including coir, dammar resin, and animal fat for waterproofing. The construction follows a unique hull-first methodology, contrasting with Western frame-first methods. The vessel is modelled after ships depicted in the 5th-century Ajanta cave paintings, with design inspiration drawn from the ancient Sanskrit text Yuktikalpataru attributed to King Bhoja of the Paramara dynasty (9th-11th century CE). The ship features symbolic motifs including the Gandabherunda (two-headed eagle of the Kadamba dynasty emblem), Sun motifs, Simha Yali (mythical lion), and a Harappan-style stone anchor. The vessel is named after Kaundinya, a legendary 1st-century Indian mariner credited with sailing to the Mekong Delta and co-founding the Kingdom of Funan in modern Cambodia, one of the earliest Indianised states in Southeast Asia.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Significant for APSC and UPSC exams as it demonstrates India's civilisational continuity in maritime technology, cultural diplomacy, and the revival of traditional knowledge systems. Assam's historical maritime links through the Brahmaputra River system and its connections to Southeast Asian cultural diffusion make this topic regionally relevant.
Factual Sentences:
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INSV stands for Indian Naval Sailing Vessel, denoting non-commissioned vessels used for training and sail training.
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The Tankai method uses coir ropes made from coconut fibre for stitching wooden planks.
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Dammar resin, derived from Dipterocarpaceae tree species, serves as a natural waterproofing agent.
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The Gandabherunda is the official emblem of the Karnataka government and the Kadamba dynasty.
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The Ajanta Caves are a UNESCO World Heritage Site dating from the 2nd century BCE to 6th century CE.
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The Kingdom of Funan existed from approximately 50 to 550 CE in the Mekong Delta region.
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Yuktikalpataru contains sections on shipbuilding, architecture, and statecraft.
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OneWeb is a global satellite communications constellation providing broadband services.
5. Dugong Conservation Centre Design Overhaul and Assam's Aquatic Conservation Parallels
Date of Occurrence: 24 January 2026
Location: Manora, Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu
Key Facts & Figures: CRZ-I, CRZ-III, seagrass meadows, IUCN Red List: Vulnerable, CITES Appendix I, Schedule I (WPA, 1972)
Government Body / Organisation Involved: MoEFCC, Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC)
The Expert Appraisal Committee of the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recommended a major design overhaul of the proposed International Dugong Conservation Centre in Manora, Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu, due to its location within the Coastal Regulation Zone-III No Development Zone and overlapping CRZ-I areas containing mangroves and seagrass meadows. The dugong is a large marine mammal featuring a dolphin-like tail, capable of growing up to 10 feet in length and weighing approximately 420 kilograms. They are strictly herbivorous, feeding primarily on seagrass meadows and inhabiting shallow, warm coastal waters less than 10 metres depth, including bays and lagoons. In India, dugong populations are found in the Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Mannar-Palk Bay, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are long-lived marine mammals with lifespans up to 70 years, typically solitary or in small pairs, and have a slow reproductive cycle reaching maturity at 9-10 years with birthing intervals of 3-5 years. The species is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List, protected under Appendix I of CITES banning international trade, and under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, according it the highest level of legal protection. Seagrass meadows, the dugong's primary habitat, are underwater flowering plants and vital wetland ecosystems that stabilise the seafloor, support fisheries, sequester carbon, and shelter marine life. India's largest seagrass meadows are found in the Gulf of Mannar and Palk Bay, hosting over 13 species, with smaller populations in Lakshadweep, Kachchh, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha facing increasing threats.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Essential for APSC and UPSC Environment segments. While dugongs are not found in Assam's freshwater ecosystems, the conservation principles, CRZ regulations, and seagrass ecosystem significance are directly applicable. Assam's aquatic conservation challenges include the Gangetic dolphin and various turtle species facing similar threats.
Factual Sentences:
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CRZ-I areas are ecologically sensitive and include mangroves, coral reefs, and seagrass beds.
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CRZ-III are rural areas with relatively undisturbed coastal stretches.
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Dugongs are also known as sea cows and farmers of the sea due to their grazing habits.
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Seagrasses are angiosperms that complete their entire lifecycle underwater.
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India's dugong population is estimated at less than 200 individuals across all habitats.
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The Gulf of Mannar is located between Tamil Nadu and Sri Lanka.
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The Andaman and Nicobar Islands host the only viable dugong population in the Indian Ocean region outside Australia.
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The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, provides absolute protection to Schedule I species with the highest penalties for violation.
SECTION 2: NATIONAL POLITICS & GOVERNMENT
6. 77th Republic Day Celebrations 2026
Date of Occurrence: 26 January 2026
Location: New Delhi, National Capital
Key Facts & Figures: 77th anniversary, theme: "150 Years of Vande Mataram", 30 tableaux, 131 Padma Awards, 70 gallantry medals
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Ministry of Defence, Ministry of Culture, President's Secretariat
Republic Day 2026 marked the 77th anniversary of the Constitution of India coming into force on 26th January 1950, celebrated around the theme "150 Years of Vande Mataram." The observance featured 30 tableaux from States, Union Territories, and Central Ministries under the sub-themes "Swatantrata ka Mantra – Vande Mataram" and "Samriddhi ka Mantra – Atmanirbhar Bharat." The parade witnessed the debut of the newly raised Bhairav Battalion, a specialised assault infantry unit, and a military contingent from the European Union participated for the first time at such an event outside Europe. The President of India conferred 131 Padma Awards, including 5 Padma Vibhushan, 13 Padma Bhushan, and 113 Padma Shri awards. A total of 70 Armed Forces personnel were awarded gallantry medals, including Ashok Chakra, Kirti Chakra, Shaurya Chakra, and various service medals. The President also conferred 301 defence decorations including Param Vishisht Seva Medals, Uttam Yudh Seva Medals, Ati Vishisht Seva Medals, Yudh Seva Medals, and Vishisht Seva Medals. The Ministry of Culture's tableau artistically traced the 150-year journey of Vande Mataram, while the Tri-Services tableau under "Operation Sindoor – Victory Through Jointness" showcased India's integrated military strength featuring Rafale jets with SCALP missiles, BrahMos cruise missile, S-400 air defence system, and HAROP loitering munitions.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Extremely important for all competitive exams including APSC, UPSC Prelims and Mains, SSC, and Banking. Republic Day is a constitutional milestone, and the 2026 celebrations included significant firsts including EU participation and the Bhairav Battalion. Questions on themes, awardees, and defence systems are frequently asked.
Factual Sentences:
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The Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950, replacing the Government of India Act, 1935.
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26 January was chosen to commemorate the Purna Swaraj Declaration of 1930.
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The Bhairav Battalion is a specialised assault infantry unit of the Indian Army.
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The European Union contingent marked the first participation by a multilateral organisation in the Republic Day parade.
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SCALP missiles are long-range, air-launched cruise missiles developed by MBDA France.
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The BrahMos missile is a joint Indo-Russian supersonic cruise missile project.
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S-400 Triumf is an anti-aircraft weapon system developed by Russia's Almaz-Antey.
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HAROP is an Israeli-made loitering munition also known as a suicide drone.
7. Padma Awards 2026 Announced
Date of Occurrence: 25 January 2026
Location: New Delhi, National Capital
Key Facts & Figures: 131 total awards: 5 Padma Vibhushan, 13 Padma Bhushan, 113 Padma Shri
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Ministry of Home Affairs, Padma Awards Committee
On the eve of the 77th Republic Day, the President of India approved the Padma Awards 2026 list comprising 131 recipients, including 5 Padma Vibhushan, 13 Padma Bhushan, and 113 Padma Shri awards. The major awardees included actor Dharmendra Singh Deol and former Kerala Chief Minister VS Achuthanandan, both honoured with the Padma Vibhushan posthumously. The Padma Awards were instituted in 1954 alongside the Bharat Ratna as the nation's premier civilian honours recognising distinguished contributions across all fields of public service and human endeavour. Initially, two civilian awards were created—Bharat Ratna (the highest) and Padma Vibhushan (with three classes). In 1955, Padma Vibhushan classes were restructured into three distinct awards in descending order of prestige: Padma Vibhushan for exceptional and distinguished service, Padma Bhushan for distinguished service of high order, and Padma Shri for distinguished service in any field. Article 18(1) of the Constitution abolishes all titles and prohibits the State from conferring titles, with explicit exceptions for military and academic distinctions. In Balaji Raghavan v. Union of India (1996), the Supreme Court held that national awards are state recognitions of exceptional work and merit, not hereditary or personal distinctions, and thus do not violate Article 18. The Padma Awards Committee, appointed annually by the Prime Minister and chaired by the Cabinet Secretary, scrutinises nominations and submits recommendations to the Prime Minister and President for final approval. Awards are announced annually on Republic Day eve and formally conferred by the President in March/April.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Critical for all competitive examinations. Questions on civilian awards, their constitutional status, and recent awardees are consistently featured in UPSC Prelims, State PSC exams, SSC, and Banking awareness sections.
Factual Sentences:
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The Padma Vibhushan is the second-highest civilian award after the Bharat Ratna.
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The awards are conferred in disciplines including art, social work, public affairs, science, engineering, and civil service.
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Since 2014, the government has emphasised recognising "unsung heroes" through Padma Awards.
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The awards are capped at a maximum of 120 per year, excluding posthumous, NRI, foreigner, and OCI recipients.
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The awards were suspended twice: 1978-79 and 1993-97.
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Recipients receive a Sanad (certificate), medallion, and replica.
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The award cannot be used as a prefix or suffix to the recipient's name.
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Foreigners, NRIs, PIOs, and OCIs are also eligible for the awards.
8. National Voters' Day 2026
Date of Occurrence: 25 January 2026
Location: New Delhi, National Capital
Key Facts & Figures: Theme: "My India, My Vote", tagline: "Citizen at the Heart of Indian Democracy", ECINET launched, Delhi Declaration 2026
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Election Commission of India
The President of India presided over the National Voters' Day celebrations on 25th January 2026, marking the foundation day of the Election Commission of India, which was established on 25th January 1950 under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution. The theme for NVD 2026 was "My India, My Vote" with the tagline "Citizen at the Heart of Indian Democracy," symbolising the ECI's efforts to design citizen-centric electoral processes. The President presented the Best Electoral Practices Awards recognising states including Bihar, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Gujarat, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Delhi for excellence in technology use, election management, voter awareness, Model Code of Conduct enforcement, and training. Two publications were released: "2025: A Year of Initiatives and Innovations" and "Chunav Ka Parv, Bihar Ka Garv," showcasing the ECI's electoral management leadership. The ECI launched ECINET, a user-friendly digital interface integrating over 40 existing mobile and web applications into a single "one-stop" interface for electors, election officials, political parties, and civil society. India hosted the India International Conference on Democracy and Election Management 2026 in New Delhi, leading to the adoption of the Delhi Declaration 2026 outlining five pillars: clean electoral rolls, free and fair elections, research and publications, use of technology including sharing India's ECINET platform, and training and capacity building through IIIDEM.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Highly important for all competitive exams, particularly for understanding India's electoral system, constitutional bodies, and recent technological innovations in election management. APSC exams frequently feature questions on the ECI and electoral reforms.
Factual Sentences:
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Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission.
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The ECI was established on 25 January 1950, one day before India became a Republic.
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ECINET integrates over 40 ECI applications into a unified platform.
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cVIGIL app allows citizens to report MCC violations with 100-minute mandated response time.
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e-EPIC was launched in 2021 as a secure, non-editable digital version of the voter ID.
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VVPAT was introduced in 2013 following Supreme Court directive in Subramanian Swamy vs. ECI.
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SVEEP (Systematic Voters' Education and Electoral Participation) was launched in 2009.
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IIIDEM is the India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management.
9. Supreme Court Directs States on Police-Media Briefing Policy
Date of Occurrence: 27 January 2026
Location: New Delhi, National Capital
Key Facts & Figures: 3-month deadline, Gopal Sankaranarayanan Police Manual, PUCL vs State of Maharashtra (2014)
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Supreme Court of India, People's Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL)
The Supreme Court of India directed all State governments to formulate a comprehensive policy for police media briefings within three months, modelled on the manual prepared by amicus curiae Gopal Sankaranarayanan, to ensure a balance between transparency and the rights of the accused. The directive stems from a batch of petitions led by the People's Union for Civil Liberties, a civil rights non-governmental organisation that was central to the landmark 2014 Supreme Court judgment in PUCL vs State of Maharashtra, which laid down 16 mandatory guidelines for investigating police encounters and extra-judicial killings. The Gopal Sankaranarayanan Police Manual considers international best practices and views of the Union government, aiming to establish a principled, rights-compatible, and investigation-safe framework that safeguards the dignity, privacy, and fair-trial rights of victims, witnesses, and suspects while meeting the public's need for accurate information. The manual asserts that police media briefings should serve specific purposes: to prevent harm, correct rumours, enlist public cooperation, and maintain law and order. Acknowledging the social media age, the Court emphasised that police must release only correct, verified, and necessary information to prevent the spread of fake news that could disrupt public order.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Important for UPSC and APSC Mains papers on Polity, Governance, and Judiciary. The case illustrates judicial activism, fundamental rights jurisprudence, and the balance between transparency and individual rights.
Factual Sentences:
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Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, including the right to a fair trial.
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Article 19(1)(a) guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression.
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The Supreme Court's powers under Article 142 allow it to pass decrees for complete justice.
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PUCL vs State of Maharashtra (2014) established 16 encounter investigation guidelines.
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Amicus curiae literally means "friend of the court" in Latin.
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The manual addresses the conflict between the presumption of innocence and media reporting.
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Fake news is not protected speech under Article 19(2) reasonable restrictions.
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The directive applies to all States and Union Territories.
10. Supreme Court to Examine Whether ED is a 'Juristic Person'
Date of Occurrence: 23 January 2026
Location: New Delhi, National Capital
Key Facts & Figures: Article 226, FEMA 1999, PMLA 2002, Chief Conservator of Forests vs Collector (2003)
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Supreme Court of India, Directorate of Enforcement (ED)
The Supreme Court of India agreed to examine petitions filed by Tamil Nadu and Kerala seeking clarity on whether the Directorate of Enforcement is a 'juristic person' entitled to approach High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution. A juristic person is a non-human legal entity such as a corporation recognised by law as having rights and duties, including the capacity to sue or be sued. Kerala contended that the ED filed a writ petition in the High Court challenging a State-appointed Commission of Inquiry related to the gold smuggling case without having the locus standi to do so. Tamil Nadu accused the ED of abusing the process of law by seeking a mandamus from the Madras High Court regarding illegal mining cases, arguing such writs are misconceived and unmaintainable. Both States contended that statutory bodies can exercise only powers expressly granted by statute, and the ED is not vested with the power to sue under either the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, or the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. Unlike a body corporate, the ED lacks the specific statutory power to claim legal status as a juristic person. The States relied on the Supreme Court judgment in Chief Conservator of Forests, Govt of AP vs Collector (2003), which established that the ability of a legal entity to sue or be sued is a matter of substantive law, not just procedure.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Crucial for UPSC and State PSC exams, particularly for understanding constitutional remedies, statutory authorities, and Centre-State legal disputes. Article 226 is a key provision for judicial review.
Factual Sentences:
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Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose.
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The five writs are Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto.
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FEMA 1999 replaced the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA), 1973.
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PMLA 2002 was enacted to prevent money laundering and provide for confiscation of property.
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Locus standi refers to the legal standing to bring a case before court.
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The ED is a statutory law enforcement agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
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A body corporate is an entity having legal personality separate from its members.
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Substantive law defines rights and duties, while procedural law prescribes methods of enforcement.
11. Supreme Court Verdict on DTAA and GAAR in Tiger Global-Flipkart Case
Date of Occurrence: 23 January 2026
Location: New Delhi, National Capital
Key Facts & Figures: USD 1.6 billion stake sale, India-Mauritius DTAA, GAAR effective 1 April 2017, grandfathering provision
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Supreme Court of India, Authority for Advance Rulings (AAR)
The Supreme Court ruled that Tiger Global's USD 1.6 billion stake sale in Flipkart to Walmart in 2018 is taxable in India, denying the benefits of the India-Mauritius Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement and enforcing the General Anti-Avoidance Rule. The Court overturned the August 2024 Delhi High Court judgment, which had quashed an Authority for Advance Rulings order denying DTAA benefits. The Supreme Court held that DTAA benefits cannot be claimed mechanically and rejected reliance on Tax Residency Certificates alone, as the India-Mauritius DTAA applies only where assets are directly owned by a Mauritian entity. It emphasised economic substance, control, and management, concluding the entities' head and brain lay outside Mauritius, particularly in the United States. The AAR's 2020 order denied DTAA grandfathering benefits, ruling the investment structure was prima facie for tax avoidance, a finding later struck down by the Delhi High Court as arbitrary. The Supreme Court reversed the Delhi High Court, restoring the AAR's substance-over-form approach. Grandfathering under the India-Mauritius DTAA protected capital gains from investments made before 1st April 2017, which were taxed only in Mauritius at 0% in India even after the treaty was amended. The ruling signals a major shift, ending automatic DTAA claims based solely on residency certificates, requiring investors to demonstrate genuine economic substance, autonomous decision-making, and commercial rationale for DTAA benefits.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Extremely important for UPSC Economics, Finance, and International Relations segments, and for Banking exams. Questions on tax treaties, GAAR, and international taxation are frequently tested in both Prelims and Mains.
Factual Sentences:
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DTAA is a bilateral agreement to prevent double taxation of income arising from cross-border activities.
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India has DTAAs with over 90 countries.
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GAAR came into effect on 1st April 2017 to curb aggressive tax planning and treaty shopping.
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The Limitation of Benefits clause requires substantive economic presence for treaty benefits.
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Tax Residency Certificate is issued by a country's tax authority confirming an entity's tax residency.
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Treaty shopping refers to routing investments through a jurisdiction with favourable tax treaties.
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The Authority for Advance Rulings provides binding rulings on specific tax questions.
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The India-Mauritius DTAA was amended in 2016 to introduce source-based taxation of capital gains.
SECTION 3: ECONOMY & BANKING
12. India-EU Free Trade Agreement Negotiations Concluded
Date of Occurrence: 28 January 2026
Location: Brussels, European Union / New Delhi, India
Key Facts & Figures: EU to open 97% tariff lines covering 99.5% of India's exports, India commits 92.1% tariff lines, USD 135 billion bilateral goods trade (2023-24)
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Ministry of Commerce and Industry, European Commission
India and the European Union concluded negotiations for a comprehensive Free Trade Agreement, marking a transformative step in their economic relations with the EU becoming India's 22nd FTA partner. The concluded India-EU FTA will now undergo language finalisation and legal scrubbing, followed by translation and ratification by all 27 EU Member States and the European Parliament before entry into force. The European Union committed to open 97% of its tariff lines, covering 99.5% of India's exports by value, offering India one of the deepest preferential market access arrangements it has ever received. Key labour-intensive employment-generating sectors including textiles, apparel, leather, footwear, marine products, gems and jewellery, toys, and sports goods, currently facing EU duties of 4-26%, will enter the EU market at zero duty, covering exports worth approximately USD 33 billion. The EU made binding commitments across 144 services subsectors including IT/ITeS, digital services, professional services, education, and business services, ensuring regulatory certainty and non-discriminatory treatment for Indian service providers. India committed market access on 92.1% of its tariff lines, covering 97.5% of EU exports, with critical sectors including dairy, cereals, poultry, soymeal, and select agricultural products remaining protected, while automobiles, wines, and spirits are subject to gradual liberalisation. The FTA establishes a clear framework for temporary movement of professionals including intra-corporate transferees, contractual service suppliers, and independent professionals with provisions for dependents, students, and future social security arrangements.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Critically important for UPSC Economics, International Relations, and Commerce segments. Questions on India's trade agreements, tariff liberalisation, and services trade are regularly tested in Prelims, Mains, and Banking exams.
Factual Sentences:
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The EU is India's largest goods trading partner with bilateral trade of USD 135 billion in FY 2023-24.
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Bilateral trade in services reached a record USD 53 billion in 2023.
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EU investments in India exceed USD 117 billion.
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The India-EU Strategic Partnership was established in 2004.
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The India-EU Trade and Technology Council was established in 2022.
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Sanitary and Phytosanitary measures relate to food safety and animal/plant health standards.
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Technical Barriers to Trade refer to technical regulations, standards, and conformity assessment procedures.
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Rules of Origin determine the national source of a product for trade purposes.
13. India's LFPR Hits Record 56.1% in December 2025
Date of Occurrence: 23 January 2026
Location: New Delhi, National Capital
Key Facts & Figures: LFPR 56.1%, WPR 53.4%, UR 4.8%, Rural LFPR 59.0%, Urban LFPR 50.2%
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Periodic Labour Force Survey
The Periodic Labour Force Survey – December 2025 showed consistent recovery with workforce participation reaching yearly highs while unemployment rates remained broadly stable. The Labour Force Participation Rate for persons aged 15 years and above continued its upward trend since June 2025, reaching 56.1% in December 2025. The Worker Population Ratio reached its yearly peak at 53.4%, with rural male WPR showing strong performance at 76.0% and rural women at 38.6%, indicating robust rural employment. The overall Unemployment Rate remained stable at 4.8%, with rural UR steady at 3.9% while urban UR increased slightly to 6.7%. Urban female UR showed a significant decline to 9.1% from its yearly peak of 9.7% in October 2025. A clear rural-urban disparity persists with rural LFPR at 59.0% substantially higher than urban LFPR at 50.2%, and urban unemployment consistently exceeding rural levels. The monthly data is based on the Current Weekly Status approach, which assesses a person's activity status over the 7 days preceding the survey, classifying them as employed, unemployed, or out of the labour force.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Highly important for UPSC Economics, State PSC, and Banking exams. Labour force indicators are critical for understanding employment trends and are frequently tested in both Prelims and Mains.
Factual Sentences:
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LFPR is the percentage of the working-age population (15-59 years) that is either employed or actively seeking employment.
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WPR is the percentage of the working-age population that is actually employed.
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UR is the percentage of the labour force that is unemployed and actively seeking work.
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The PLFS was launched by the National Statistical Office in 2017.
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The Current Weekly Status approach has a shorter reference period than the Usual Status approach.
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India's working-age population is defined as persons aged 15-59 years.
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Rural LFPR consistently exceeds urban LFPR due to higher participation in agriculture.
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Female LFPR in India remains below global averages despite recent improvements.
14. Household Savings and Debt Concerns
Date of Occurrence: 24 January 2026
Location: New Delhi, National Capital
Key Facts & Figures: Net financial savings 7.6% of GDP (Q4 2024-25), household debt 41.3% of GDP (March 2025), unsecured retail credit growth
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Reserve Bank of India
The Reserve Bank of India's Financial Stability Report 2025 and Annual Report 2024-25 revealed concerning structural shifts in household finances, with declining and volatile household savings, rising debt, and increasing reliance on credit to sustain consumption. Net financial savings recovered to 7.6% of GDP in the last quarter of 2024-25, but this came after compression to about 3-4% of GDP in the preceding quarter, weakening households' capacity to absorb income, health, or employment shocks. Household debt increased from about 36% of GDP in 2021 to 41.3% in March 2025, with real income growth remaining uneven and concentrated in formal sectors, while informal and self-employed workers face stagnant or volatile earnings constraining consistent savings. Stable consumption despite weak income growth indicates rising reliance on credit, with private consumption contributing nearly 60% of GDP. Dependence on debt-supported consumption increases the risk of abrupt spending contraction during economic stress and heightens vulnerability to interest-rate changes. While gross household financial assets stood at 106.6% of GDP, liabilities rose to 41.3% of GDP by March 2025, with faster liability accumulation explaining the compression of net financial savings. Rapid growth in unsecured personal loans and credit cards increases household vulnerability, as these loans carry higher interest rates and limited repayment flexibility during stress periods. Budgets 2024-25 show States and the Union prioritising capital expenditure while compressing revenue spending, with 30-32% of State revenues locked into salaries, pensions, and interest, reducing fiscal space for income support.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Critical for UPSC Economics, Banking exams, and State PSC examinations. Understanding household savings, debt dynamics, and their macroeconomic implications is essential for both Prelims and Mains.
Factual Sentences:
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Net financial savings are calculated as gross financial assets minus gross financial liabilities.
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Private consumption accounts for approximately 55-60% of India's GDP.
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Unsecured loans include personal loans, credit card dues, and consumer durable loans.
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Macro-prudential measures are regulatory policies to ensure financial system stability.
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The RBI increased risk weights on unsecured loans in 2024-25 to curb excessive lending.
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The Current Account Deficit is the difference between imports and exports of goods and services.
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Foreign Portfolio Investment refers to investments in financial assets rather than direct ownership.
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Fiscal consolidation refers to policies aimed at reducing government budget deficits and debt accumulation.
15. India's Power Sector Milestones 2025
Date of Occurrence: 24 January 2026
Location: New Delhi, National Capital
Key Facts & Figures: Peak power demand 242.49 GW, total installed capacity 509 GW, renewable capacity 178 GW (130 GW solar, 33 GW wind), energy shortages reduced to 0.03%
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Ministry of Power, Bureau of Energy Efficiency, Central Electricity Authority
The year 2025 proved to be a landmark period for the Ministry of Power, as India's power sector achieved record milestones establishing a strong foundation for sustainable growth and enhanced energy security. India successfully met an all-time peak power demand of 242.49 GW in FY 2025-26, reducing national energy shortages to a mere 0.03% from 4.2% in 2013-14, while significantly increasing rural and urban power availability to 22.6 and 23.4 hours respectively. Total installed power generation capacity surged to around 509 GW as of November 2025, a 104.4% increase since 2014, with 55.57 GW added in 2025 alone. Renewable energy capacity additions since 2014 stand at 178 GW, including 130 GW solar and 33 GW wind. The power sector is poised for massive growth with a projected investment of USD 450 billion by 2032. India achieved its Nationally Determined Contributions target of 50% cumulative non-fossil electric capacity nearly five years early, with the share rising from 32% in 2014 to 51% by October 2025. The Carbon Credit Trading Scheme was introduced as a market-based mechanism to decarbonise the Indian economy by pricing GHG emissions, transitioning from the Perform, Achieve, and Trade scheme focused on energy efficiency via Energy Savings Certificates to a focus on reducing GHG emission intensity per tonne of output. The scheme issues Carbon Credit Certificates, each representing a reduction of one-tonne CO2 equivalent, operating through both compliance mechanisms mandating energy-intensive industries to meet sector-specific GHG reduction targets and offset mechanisms allowing voluntary participation.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Extremely important for UPSC, State PSC, and Banking exams covering energy security, climate change commitments, and infrastructure. Questions on renewable energy targets, carbon markets, and power sector reforms are consistently featured.
Factual Sentences:
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India's NDC target under the Paris Agreement includes 50% cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030.
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The Perform, Achieve, and Trade scheme was launched in 2012 under the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency.
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ESCerts are tradable certificates issued for excess energy savings under the PAT scheme.
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The Bureau of Energy Efficiency is a statutory body under the Ministry of Power established in 2002.
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Pump Storage Projects are a type of hydroelectric energy storage system.
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Battery Energy Storage Systems store electrical energy in rechargeable batteries.
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Viability Gap Funding provides capital subsidies to make infrastructure projects commercially viable.
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AT&C losses represent the difference between energy input and revenue realised.
SECTION 4: SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY
16. Long Range Anti-Ship Hypersonic Missile Showcased
Date of Occurrence: 26 January 2026
Location: New Delhi, National Capital
Key Facts & Figures: Mach 10 initial speed, average Mach 5, range 1,500 km (future variants up to 3,500 km), two-stage solid rocket motor
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Indian Navy
At the 77th Republic Day Parade, the Defence Research and Development Organisation showcased the Long Range Anti-Ship Hypersonic Missile for the first time, marking a major milestone in India's missile capabilities. The LR-AShM is a hypersonic glide missile that follows a quasi-ballistic trajectory, combining ballistic launch with low-altitude, manoeuvrable flight. It reaches Mach 10 initially and maintains an average Mach 5, performing multiple atmospheric skips that enhance range and unpredictability. The missile can engage both static and moving targets and has a range of about 1,500 km, with future variants planned up to 3,500 km. Flying at low altitude with extreme speed and manoeuvrability, the missile is difficult for enemy ground-based and ship-based radars to detect or intercept. The missile uses a two-stage solid rocket motor—Stage-1 separates after burnout, while Stage-2 boosts the missile before it enters an unpowered hypersonic glide phase. High aerodynamic efficiency allows the missile to minimise drag while maintaining lift and control, enabling greater speed, range, and accuracy with optimal energy use. The missile is designed for the Indian Navy's coastal defence needs and serves as a potent sea-denial weapon capable of neutralising all classes of warships, particularly in the strategically important Indian Ocean Region. Variants of the LR-AShM for the Army, Air Force, and ship-launched naval use are under development, following a successful test in November 2024, with warhead and sensor integration underway and induction into service expected within the next 2-3 years.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Highly important for UPSC, State PSC, and Defence exams. Questions on hypersonic technology, missile systems, and DRDO achievements are frequently asked in both Prelims and Mains.
Factual Sentences:
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Hypersonic speeds are defined as speeds exceeding Mach 5 (five times the speed of sound).
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Mach 10 is equivalent to approximately 12,348 kilometres per hour at sea level.
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A quasi-ballistic trajectory follows a ballistic path but includes in-flight manoeuvring capability.
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The Indian Ocean Region is India's primary area of maritime strategic interest.
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Sea-denial weapons are designed to prevent enemy forces from operating in a specific area.
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Solid rocket motors use solid propellants and have no moving parts in the propulsion system.
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DRDO is the premier defence research and development agency under the Ministry of Defence.
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The missile was tested successfully in November 2024 from Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha.
17. Reusable Launch Vehicle Technology Developments
Date of Occurrence: 24 January 2026
Location: Bengaluru, Karnataka
Key Facts & Figures: RLV-TD (Pushpak), LEX series, ADMIRE, NGLV (Project Soorya), global space market projected over USD 1 trillion by 2030
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
The global space sector is shifting from government-led exploration to private-driven commercial activity, with Reusable Launch Vehicle technology emerging as a key disruptor projected to exceed USD 1 trillion by 2030, with reusability reducing launch costs by 5-20 times enabling more sustainable and frequent access to space. An RLV is a space launch system designed to allow for the recovery of some or all of its component stages, unlike expendable rockets that burn up or are discarded in the ocean, returning to Earth to be refurbished and flown again. Rocket motion is governed by the Tsiolkovsky rocket equation, which shows that carrying fuel itself adds weight, and additional weight demands even more fuel, resulting in over 90% of a rocket's mass consisting of propellant and fuel tanks, leaving less than 4% for payload. ISRO's Reusable Launch Vehicle – Technology Demonstrator (Pushpak) is a winged technology demonstrator that simulates aircraft-like landing, with successful LEX series experiments (LEX-01, 02, 03) testing autonomous horizontal landing. ADMIRE is ISRO's test bed for Vertical Landing technology, aiming to develop retro-propulsion capabilities similar to Falcon 9. The Next Generation Launch Vehicle (Project Soorya) is being designed to replace the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle and will feature a reusable first stage using vertical landing technology.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Extremely important for UPSC and State PSC Science & Technology segments. ISRO's achievements and space technology developments are consistently featured in both Prelims and Mains.
Factual Sentences:
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The Tsiolkovsky rocket equation describes the motion of vehicles that follow the principle of rocket propulsion.
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Staging divides a rocket into multiple propulsion units discarded sequentially during ascent.
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VTVL refers to Vertical Take-off, Vertical Landing technology.
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Thermal Protection Systems shield spacecraft from extreme heat during re-entry.
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Retro-propulsion involves firing engines in the direction opposite to travel to slow down.
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PSLV is India's Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, operational since 1993.
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The Falcon 9 is a reusable rocket developed by SpaceX.
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The LEX series experiments validated autonomous landing capabilities for winged bodies.
18. Scientists Plan World's First Graviton Detector
Date of Occurrence: 24 January 2026
Location: Stevens Institute of Technology, New Jersey, USA; Yale University, Connecticut, USA
Key Facts & Figures: Superfluid helium resonator, quantum ground state, phonon detection, four fundamental forces of physics
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Not applicable (International research collaboration)
Researchers from Stevens Institute of Technology and Yale University are developing an experiment aimed at detecting gravitons, the hypothetical quantum particles believed to carry gravity, bridging the gap between quantum mechanics and general relativity. A graviton is a hypothetical elementary particle believed to carry the force of gravity, similar to how photons carry electromagnetic force, and detecting gravitons would confirm gravity as a quantum force, representing a major breakthrough in physics. The proposed detector is a superfluid helium resonator cooled to its quantum ground state to eliminate noise, where when a gravitational wave passes through it could transfer one quantum of energy (a graviton), causing a phonon (vibration) detectable by lasers. Gravity is the weakest of the four fundamental forces (gravity, electromagnetism, strong nuclear force, and weak nuclear force), making graviton interaction with matter extremely rare, with a graviton capable of passing through matter almost without interaction, giving it an extremely small detection probability. Even if a vibration is detected, it may still be explainable by classical gravity, and previous studies suggest that creating a detector capable of capturing a single graviton may be practically impossible. Successful graviton detection would be a landmark breakthrough, opening pathways toward a unified theory of physics and deeper understanding of the universe.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Important for UPSC Science & Technology segments, particularly for understanding cutting-edge physics research and fundamental scientific concepts. Questions on gravitons, quantum mechanics, and gravitational waves appear occasionally.
Factual Sentences:
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Quantum mechanics describes the behaviour of matter and energy at atomic and subatomic scales.
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General relativity is Albert Einstein's theory of gravitation published in 1915.
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The four fundamental forces are gravity, electromagnetism, strong nuclear force, and weak nuclear force.
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Photons are elementary particles that carry electromagnetic force and are quanta of light.
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Superfluidity is a phase of matter with zero viscosity, exhibited by liquid helium below 2.17 Kelvin.
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Quantum ground state is the lowest energy state of a quantum system.
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Phonons are quantised modes of vibration in a rigid crystal lattice.
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Gravitational waves are ripples in spacetime first directly detected in 2015 by LIGO.
19. DoT De-licenses Lower Half of 6 GHz Band
Date of Occurrence: 24 January 2026
Location: New Delhi, National Capital
Key Facts & Figures: 5,925–6,425 MHz frequency range, theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps, WiFi 6E, WiFi 7, Multi-Link Operation
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Department of Telecommunications (DoT)
The Department of Telecommunications officially de-licensed the lower half of the 6 GHz frequency band for indoor use, paving the way for the adoption of WiFi 6E and WiFi 7 technologies in India. The 6 GHz frequency range of 5,925–6,425 MHz is now license-free, providing an extra strand of spectrum for routers and reducing congestion on the legacy 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. Spectrum refers to the invisible radio frequencies used for wireless communication, ranging from 20 KHz to 300 GHz as a subset of the larger electromagnetic spectrum. The 2.4 GHz band offers wide coverage by passing through walls but has limited data speed, while the 5 GHz band offers high speed but has a shorter range. WiFi 6 uses both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz simultaneously for greater efficiency, while the 6 GHz band offers ultra-high theoretical speeds of 9.6 Gbps. This move enables Multi-Link Operation, a key feature of WiFi 7 that allows devices to transmit data across multiple bands (2.4 GHz, 5 GHz, and 6 GHz) simultaneously, ensuring higher speeds and lower latency. The 6 GHz band is essential for high-bandwidth applications including Virtual Reality, Augmented Reality, and high-fidelity cloud gaming, as it allows massive data flow with minimal lag. India has adopted a balanced approach similar to Europe, splitting the 6 GHz band between unlicensed use for WiFi and licensed use potentially for 5G/6G, unlike the United States which fully de-licensed the band, or China which reserved it for mobile services. The de-licensed use is strictly for indoor environments and remains prohibited on moving vehicles including cars and trains, and on oil rigs to prevent interference with other critical services.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Important for UPSC, Banking, and Technology exams. Spectrum management, WiFi technologies, and digital infrastructure are increasingly relevant for competitive examinations.
Factual Sentences:
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WiFi 6E extends WiFi 6 into the 6 GHz frequency band.
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WiFi 7 is the next-generation WiFi standard based on the IEEE 802.11be amendment.
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Multi-Link Operation enables simultaneous data transmission across multiple frequency bands.
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The electromagnetic spectrum includes radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X-rays, and gamma rays.
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20 KHz to 300 GHz is the radio frequency portion of the electromagnetic spectrum.
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Spectrum licensing in India is governed by the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885.
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5G technology operates primarily in sub-6 GHz and millimetre wave frequencies.
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India's 5G rollout is among the fastest globally, covering over 700 districts.
SECTION 5: ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY
20. State of Finance for Nature 2026 Report
Date of Occurrence: 28 January 2026
Location: Nairobi, Kenya (UNEP Headquarters)
Key Facts & Figures: USD 7.3 trillion nature-negative finance, USD 220 billion Nature-based Solutions investment, 30:1 imbalance, USD 2.4 trillion environmentally harmful subsidies
Government Body / Organisation Involved: United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
The United Nations Environment Programme released its flagship report titled "State of Finance for Nature 2026," highlighting a stark imbalance in global financial flows revealing that for every USD 1 invested in protecting nature, nearly USD 30 is spent on activities that destroy it. Global financial flows to activities harming nature, including fossil fuel extraction, unsustainable agriculture, and deforestation, reached USD 7.3 trillion in 2023, representing approximately 7% of global GDP. The private sector accounts for USD 4.9 trillion of nature-negative flows, concentrated in sectors including energy, utilities, and basic materials. Governments provide about USD 2.4 trillion annually in Environmentally Harmful Subsidies, dominated by fossil fuel support, followed by unsustainable agriculture and water subsidies, which distort market prices making environmental destruction cheaper than conservation. Investments in Nature-based Solutions stood at only USD 220 billion, creating a massive disparity with harmful investments outpacing protective spending by a 30:1 ratio. However, spending on biodiversity and landscape protection is rising, increasing by 11% between 2022 and 2023, while international public finance for NbS in 2023 was 22% higher than in 2022 and 55% above 2015 levels. NbS finance is overwhelmingly driven by public funds with 90% of total NbS finance coming from governments, while private investment in NbS accounts for just 10% of the total. To meet the Rio Convention targets (UNFCCC, CBD, UNCCD), NbS investment must increase 2.5 times to reach USD 571 billion annually by 2030.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Critical for UPSC Environment and Ecology segments, State PSC exams, and Banking awareness on sustainable finance. Questions on climate finance, biodiversity conventions, and green economy are frequently tested.
Factual Sentences:
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The Rio Conventions emerged from the 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
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UNFCCC aims to limit global warming to below 2°C, preferably 1.5°C.
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CBD seeks to conserve 30% of land, waters, and seas and restore 30% of degraded ecosystems by 2030.
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UNCCD targets restoring 1.5 billion hectares of degraded land by 2030.
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Nature-based Solutions are actions to protect, sustainably manage, and restore ecosystems.
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Environmentally Harmful Subsidies include fossil fuel subsidies, agricultural subsidies, and water subsidies.
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Greenwashing refers to conveying false impressions about environmental responsibility.
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The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework was adopted at COP15 in 2022.
21. India-Spain Counter-Terrorism Cooperation
Date of Occurrence: 23 January 2026
Location: New Delhi, National Capital
Key Facts & Figures: 70th anniversary of diplomatic relations (2026), USD 9.32 billion bilateral trade (2024), USD 4.29 billion cumulative FDI, 6th largest EU trade partner
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Ministry of External Affairs, Government of Spain
President Droupadi Murmu emphasised the need for India and Spain to unite their resources and capabilities to combat global terrorism during a meeting with the Spanish Foreign Minister, with the year 2026 marking 70 years of diplomatic relations between India and Spain, to be celebrated as the India-Spain Dual Year of Culture, Tourism, and Artificial Intelligence. Both nations share a firm stance against terrorism, viewing it as a critical threat to global peace, with the President calling for pooling resources to fight terrorism in all its forms and manifestations. As strong proponents of multilateralism, India and Spain should collaborate on platforms including the United Nations and G-20 to promote global stability and prosperity. Spain is India's 6th largest trade partner in the European Union, with bilateral trade reaching USD 9.32 billion in 2024, while Spain is the 16th largest investor in India with cumulative FDI of USD 4.29 billion. Institutional mechanisms including the India-Spain Joint Commission on Economic Cooperation and a fast-track investment mechanism underpin this expanding economic engagement. The signing of the India-EU Free Trade Agreement is expected to significantly boost bilateral trade, with the EU currently India's largest trading partner reaching USD 135 billion in goods trade in FY 2023-24. Spain shares land borders with Portugal to the west, France and Andorra to the northeast, and Gibraltar to the south, with maritime boundaries defined by the Bay of Biscay to the north, the Atlantic Ocean to the northwest and southwest, and the Mediterranean Sea to the southeast and east. The country features diverse topography including the Pyrenees Mountains, the Meseta Central plateau, and the Tabernas Desert, while encompassing the strategic Balearic and Canary Islands.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Important for UPSC International Relations and State PSC exams. Questions on India's bilateral relations, counter-terrorism cooperation, and EU member states are regularly featured.
Factual Sentences:
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The Pyrenees Mountains form a natural border between France and Spain.
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The Meseta Central is a high plateau covering approximately 40% of Spanish territory.
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The Tabernas Desert is located in the province of Almería in southeastern Spain.
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The Balearic Islands in the Mediterranean Sea include Mallorca, Menorca, Ibiza, and Formentera.
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The Canary Islands are located off the northwest coast of Africa in the Atlantic Ocean.
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G-20 is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union.
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Joint Commission on Economic Cooperation is a bilateral mechanism for trade and investment promotion.
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Fast-track investment mechanism facilitates expedited clearance for priority investment projects.
SECTION 6: AWARDS & HONOURS
22. Indira Gandhi Peace Prize 2025 Awarded to Graca Machel
Date of Occurrence: 23 January 2026
Location: New Delhi, National Capital
Key Facts & Figures: Cash prize of Rs 1 crore, instituted 1986, Mozambican rights activist
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust
The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2025 was awarded to Mozambican rights activist Graca Machel for her outstanding contributions to peace, humanitarian action, and social development. The award, also known as the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize, has been awarded annually since 1986 by the Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust in memory of former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, honouring individuals or organisations for outstanding contributions to international peace, disarmament, and development. The prize carries a cash prize of Rs 1 crore, a citation, and a trophy, and is regarded as one of India's prestigious international peace awards. It is awarded across three core domains of peace, disarmament, and development. The selection criteria recognise sustained and exceptional efforts addressing global challenges related to peace, disarmament, and development, with a positive humanitarian impact and contributions to the welfare of humanity.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Important for all competitive exams including UPSC, State PSC, SSC, and Banking. Questions on national and international awards are consistently featured in current affairs sections.
Factual Sentences:
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Indira Gandhi was India's first and only female Prime Minister, serving from 1966-1977 and 1980-1984.
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The Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust was established in 1985.
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Graca Machel is the widow of former South African President Nelson Mandela and former Mozambican President Samora Machel.
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Mozambique is a country in southeastern Africa, a former Portuguese colony.
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Disarmament refers to the reduction or elimination of weapons and armed forces.
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The award is distinct from the Indira Gandhi Prize for Popularisation of Science.
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Previous recipients include the International Atomic Energy Agency, Mikhail Gorbachev, and Bill Gates.
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The award ceremony is typically held in New Delhi.
23. Parakram Diwas 2026 Commemorated
Date of Occurrence: 23 January 2026
Location: National Level
Key Facts & Figures: 129th birth anniversary of Subhash Chandra Bose, 2026 celebration at Barabati Fort, Cuttack
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Ministry of Culture
Parakram Diwas was observed on 23rd January 2026 to commemorate the 129th birth anniversary of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose, one of India's greatest freedom fighters. Parakram Diwas (Day of Valor) is celebrated annually on 23rd January to honour Netaji's birth anniversary, symbolising the courage, valor, and patriotism of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, who led the Indian National Army and advocated for complete independence. The first Parakram Diwas was held in 2021 at Kolkata's Victoria Memorial, followed by the unveiling of a hologram statue of Netaji at India Gate, New Delhi in 2022. In 2023, 21 islands in Andaman and Nicobar were named after Param Vir Chakra awardees including Major Somnath Sharma and Nayak Jadunath Singh. The 2024 event was inaugurated at Red Fort, Delhi, marking the site of the Indian National Army trials, while the 2025 event was held at Barabati Fort, Cuttack, marking his birthplace with a national-level cultural event. Netaji was born in 1897 in Cuttack, now in Odisha, then in Bengal, to Janakinath and Prabhavati Bose. He was elected Congress president in 1938 at the Haripura session and re-elected in 1939 at the Tripuri session, defeating Gandhi-backed Dr Pattabhi Sitaramayya. He resigned in 1939 due to ideological differences with the Congress leadership and proposed the Forward Bloc to unite the radical-left Congress members. The day serves as a reminder of Netaji's famous slogan, "Give me blood, and I will give you freedom," which inspired millions in the fight for India's independence.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Important for UPSC Modern Indian History, State PSC exams, and all competitive examinations. Subhash Chandra Bose is a significant figure in India's freedom struggle, and questions on Parakram Diwas and his contributions are frequently asked.
Factual Sentences:
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Subhash Chandra Bose passed the Indian Civil Service examination in 1920 but resigned in 1921.
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He founded the Indian National Army in 1942 in Southeast Asia.
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The INA trials were held at Red Fort in 1945-46.
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Forward Bloc was formed in 1939 to consolidate the radical left within Congress.
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Victoria Memorial is a marble building in Kolkata dedicated to Queen Victoria.
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India Gate is a war memorial in New Delhi honouring soldiers of the British Indian Army.
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Param Vir Chakra is India's highest military decoration awarded for acts of gallantry.
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Andaman and Nicobar Islands hosted the provisional government of Azad Hind under Bose.
24. Padma Awards 2026 (Detailed Coverage)
Date of Occurrence: 25 January 2026
Location: New Delhi, National Capital
Key Facts & Figures: 131 recipients, 5 Padma Vibhushan, 13 Padma Bhushan, 113 Padma Shri, Dharmendra Singh Deol, VS Achuthanandan
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Ministry of Home Affairs
The Padma Awards 2026 list of 131 recipients was approved by the President of India on the eve of the 77th Republic Day, comprising 5 Padma Vibhushan, 13 Padma Bhushan, and 113 Padma Shri awards. Actor Dharmendra Singh Deol and former Kerala Chief Minister VS Achuthanandan were honoured with the Padma Vibhushan posthumously. The Padma Awards were instituted in 1954 alongside the Bharat Ratna as the nation's premier civilian honours recognising distinguished contributions across all fields of public service and human endeavour. In 1955, the original Padma Vibhushan classes were restructured into three distinct awards in descending order of prestige: Padma Vibhushan for exceptional and distinguished service, Padma Bhushan for distinguished service of high order, and Padma Shri for distinguished service in any field. Article 18(1) of the Indian Constitution abolishes all titles and prohibits the State from conferring titles on any person, citizen or non-citizen, with explicit exceptions for military and academic distinctions. The Supreme Court in Balaji Raghavan v. Union of India (1996) held that national awards like Bharat Ratna and Padma awards are state recognitions of exceptional work and merit, not hereditary or personal distinctions, and hence can be conferred to meritorious individuals. Similarly, in Indira Jaising v. Supreme Court of India (2017), the Court ruled that the designation 'senior advocate' is a professional demarcation of experience and proficiency, not a title, and thus does not violate Article 18. The Padma Awards Committee, appointed annually by the Prime Minister and chaired by the Cabinet Secretary, scrutinises nominations and submits recommendations to the Prime Minister and President for final approval. Since 2014, the government has been recognising "unsung heroes" with the Padma Awards, transforming them into the "People's Padma."
Why it is important for competitive exams: Extremely important for all competitive examinations. Detailed knowledge of civilian awards, their constitutional status, and recent awardees is essential for UPSC Prelims, State PSC exams, SSC, and Banking awareness sections.
Factual Sentences:
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The Padma Awards are announced annually on the eve of Republic Day.
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The awards are formally conferred by the President of India in March/April.
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Recipients receive a Sanad (certificate), medallion, and replica.
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The award cannot be used as a prefix or suffix to the recipient's name.
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The awards are capped at a maximum of 120 per year (excluding posthumous, NRI, foreigner, and OCI recipients).
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The awards were suspended twice: 1978-79 and 1993-97.
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All individuals irrespective of race, occupation, rank, or gender are eligible.
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Foreigners, NRIs, PIOs, and OCIs are also eligible for the awards.
SECTION 7: SPORTS
25. INSV Kaundinya's Maiden Voyage
Date of Occurrence: 24 January 2026
Location: Porbandar to Muscat, Oman
Key Facts & Figures: India's first stitched ship, Tankai method, 2000-year-old technique, Yuktikalpataru (9th century CE)
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Indian Navy
INSV Kaundinya reached Muscat's Port Sultan Qaboos after completing its maiden voyage from Porbandar, Gujarat, highlighting the shared maritime heritage of India and Oman. The vessel is India's first 'stitched ship' built using the ancient stitched shipbuilding technique known as the Tankai method, reviving a 2000-year-old indigenous technology that had fallen into disuse. The Tankai method employs stitched planks bound with coir ropes instead of metal fasteners such as iron nails, making ships flexible and rust-proof, while using indigenous materials including coir, dammar resin, and animal fat for waterproofing. The construction follows a unique hull-first methodology, contrasting with Western frame-first methods. The vessel is modelled after ships depicted in the 5th-century Ajanta cave paintings, with design inspiration drawn from the ancient Sanskrit text Yuktikalpataru attributed to King Bhoja of the Paramara dynasty (9th-11th century CE). The ship features symbolic motifs including the Gandabherunda (two-headed eagle of the Kadamba dynasty emblem), Sun motifs, Simha Yali (mythical lion), and a Harappan-style stone anchor. The vessel is named after Kaundinya, a legendary 1st-century Indian mariner credited with sailing to the Mekong Delta and co-founding the Kingdom of Funan in modern Cambodia, one of the earliest Indianised states in Southeast Asia. Eutelsat, a French satellite operator, provided high-speed satellite connectivity to the INSV Kaundinya team via its OneWeb satellite constellation.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Important for UPSC, State PSC, and Defence exams. The revival of traditional shipbuilding technology, maritime heritage, and India's cultural connections with Southeast Asia are significant topics.
Factual Sentences:
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INSV stands for Indian Naval Sailing Vessel, denoting non-commissioned vessels used for training.
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The Tankai method uses coir ropes made from coconut fibre for stitching wooden planks.
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Dammar resin is derived from Dipterocarpaceae tree species native to South and Southeast Asia.
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The Gandabherunda is the official emblem of the Karnataka government.
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The Kadamba dynasty ruled parts of Karnataka from 345 to 525 CE.
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The Kingdom of Funan existed from approximately 50 to 550 CE in the Mekong Delta.
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Yuktikalpataru is an encyclopaedic Sanskrit text on statecraft and architecture.
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OneWeb is a global satellite communications constellation providing broadband services.
26. Indian Navy's First Training Squadron Visits Thailand
Date of Occurrence: 28 January 2026
Location: Phuket Deep Sea Port, Thailand
Key Facts & Figures: 1TS: INS Tir, INS Shardul, INS Sujata, ICGS Sarathi, 2026 ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation
Government Body / Organisation Involved: Indian Navy, Indian Coast Guard, Royal Thai Navy
Indian Navy's First Training Squadron comprising INS Tir, INS Shardul, INS Sujata, and ICGS Sarathi docked at Phuket Deep Sea Port, marking a training deployment to Southeast Asia and underscoring the growing maritime partnership between India and Thailand aimed at regional security and stability. The visit gained added importance as 2026 marked the ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation, reinforcing India's Act East and maritime diplomacy, and coincided with India assuming the Chair of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium from Thailand in February 2026. The training deployment includes professional exchanges and a Passage Exercise, building on established bilateral initiatives like Ex Ayutthaya and the Indo-Thai Coordinated Patrol, as well as the trilateral maritime exercise SITMEX involving India, Thailand, and Singapore. The deployment aligns with India's MAHASAGAR vision (Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions), reaffirming India's role as a responsible maritime partner committed to security, stability, and cooperation in the Indian Ocean Region.
Why it is important for competitive exams: Important for UPSC International Relations, Defence, and State PSC exams. India's maritime diplomacy, Act East policy, and engagement with ASEAN countries are significant topics for competitive examinations.
Factual Sentences:
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The First Training Squadron is part of the Southern Naval Command headquartered in Kochi.
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INS Tir is a training ship commissioned in 1960, making it one of the oldest ships in service.
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INS Shardul is a landing ship tank (LST) class amphibious warfare vessel.
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INS Sujata is a Sukanya-class patrol vessel.
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ICGS Sarathi is an Indian Coast Guard offshore patrol vessel.
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ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation 2026 commemorates the strengthening of maritime ties.
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Ex Ayutthaya is a bilateral exercise between India and Thailand.
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IONS is a voluntary initiative of 35 Indian Ocean littoral states.